Good day all
I have a question : we know that that vorticity comes from velocity gradient and viscosity, so in this case how can vortices form in such a fluid?
many thanks in advance!
Of course they can.The simple answer is they cannot.
Calculations which use the inviscid approximation have to insert vortices artificially.
From experimental evidence the starting points and strengths of any vortices that might be expected can be estimated
and then and then a mathematical model of a vortex imposed onto the otherwise inviscid model.
A connected question to others out there (I don't know the answer),
Does this mean that vortices cannot be formed in super-fluid helium?
Can super-fluid helium be stirred?
Is this really a high school topic?Thanks a lot!
but still i have another question
irrotational flow= vorticity equal to zero
if no vortices are there so does this mean that inviscid flows =irrotational flows? I know they are not but this point confuses me