L ling233 Jun 2014 306 0 Jan 18, 2016 #1 why the coefficient of volume expansion of ideal gas is given by the formula = 1/T ? by saying it = 1/T , the assume delV / V amd delP / P = constant ? why ? when the temp change , the density and specific volume(v) also change , right ? Attachments Scan.jpg 515.8 KB Views: 6

why the coefficient of volume expansion of ideal gas is given by the formula = 1/T ? by saying it = 1/T , the assume delV / V amd delP / P = constant ? why ? when the temp change , the density and specific volume(v) also change , right ?

ChipB PHF Helper Jun 2010 2,367 292 Morristown, NJ USA Jan 19, 2016 #2 Given the Ideal Gas Law rho = P/RT, take the derivative of rho with respect to T: d rho/dT = -P/(RT^2) The definition of beta is: beta = -(1/rho)(d rho/dT) at constant P So: beta = -(RT/P)(-P/(RT^2)) = 1/T at constant P. Last edited: Jan 19, 2016

Given the Ideal Gas Law rho = P/RT, take the derivative of rho with respect to T: d rho/dT = -P/(RT^2) The definition of beta is: beta = -(1/rho)(d rho/dT) at constant P So: beta = -(RT/P)(-P/(RT^2)) = 1/T at constant P.