T Torgny Apr 2016 20 1 Jun 28, 2017 #1 The image is taken from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electron_magnetic_moment#The_classical_theory_of_the_g-factor Does anyone have a proof for this theorem? More specific where they got the g=(r_e/r_m)^8 from?

The image is taken from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electron_magnetic_moment#The_classical_theory_of_the_g-factor Does anyone have a proof for this theorem? More specific where they got the g=(r_e/r_m)^8 from?

T Torgny Apr 2016 20 1 Jul 11, 2017 #2 This is an attempt to obtain the g=(r_e/r_m)^8. But it ends up only with (r_e/r_m)^4. Anyone who can derive what is wrong with theese calculations: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/345141/attempt-at-classically-obtaining-gyromagnetic-constant-2-for-electron

This is an attempt to obtain the g=(r_e/r_m)^8. But it ends up only with (r_e/r_m)^4. Anyone who can derive what is wrong with theese calculations: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/345141/attempt-at-classically-obtaining-gyromagnetic-constant-2-for-electron

N NikPerk Jul 2017 11 3 Serbia Jul 20, 2017 #3 I don't think you can do that. The Dirac equation predicted the value of the g-factor being exactly 2 for an electron. QED predicted otherwise and it has been proven to be slightly larger than 2 for electrons. Reactions: 1 person

I don't think you can do that. The Dirac equation predicted the value of the g-factor being exactly 2 for an electron. QED predicted otherwise and it has been proven to be slightly larger than 2 for electrons.