Is this Shrodinger Equation derivation a it fishy?
[Edit: Title should have read "Is this Shrodinger Equation derivation a bit fishy?" ]
DrPhysicsA, on youtube, does great short mathematical derivations that I don't need 5 post graduate degrees to follow. But I kind of got to thinking about this:
(Its only 7 minutes long).
However, I have some questions about this:
1. Is P = h / lambda true for all waves (ie water waves) or only electromagnetic waves?
2. If Psi(x,t) is a probability wave then how can a probability wave have a momentum?
3. If Psi(x,t) = exp(i(kxomega*t)) then how can this even be massaged into bell shaped curves or curves with damped oscillations at the edges? For instance with the double slit experiment the probability distribution at the screen doesn't extend to infinity (or not without significant dampening as it extends to positive or negative infinity).
4. If its a superposition of Psi(x,t) eigenfunctions then how can you even produce a double slit interference pattern with linear combinations of Psi(x,t) even with different frequencies.
5. A fourier series is always going to be periodic but the Psi(x,t) functions are not necessarily so.
I am starting to wonder if QM is "glorified curve fitting"? How is it that QM can be ontological with so much hand waving?
Your thoughts?
Regards
KiwiHeretic
