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Old Jun 16th 2009, 12:15 PM   #1
s3a
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Join Date: Mar 2009
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Which of the following machines have the same Ideal Mechanical Advantage?

PHYSICS 534

Can someone please explain Exam 2006 #9 to me?

I get why 4 is IMA = 5 and that 1 is IMA = 4 however what I do not understand is why 2 is IMA = 5 and what is 3?

Any help would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks in advance!

EDIT: *I POSTED IN WRONG PLACE BY ACCIDENT. IF A MODERATOR COULD MOVE IT IN THE RIGHT PLACE, THAT'D BE NICE.*

Last edited by s3a; Jun 16th 2009 at 12:18 PM.
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Old Jun 16th 2009, 06:56 PM   #2
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Originally Posted by s3a View Post
PHYSICS 534

Can someone please explain Exam 2006 #9 to me?

I get why 4 is IMA = 5 and that 1 is IMA = 4 however what I do not understand is why 2 is IMA = 5 and what is 3?

Any help would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks in advance!

EDIT: *I POSTED IN WRONG PLACE BY ACCIDENT. IF A MODERATOR COULD MOVE IT IN THE RIGHT PLACE, THAT'D BE NICE.*
In a single fixed pulley,IMA= 1. In a single movable pulley IMA = 2.
So in 1 you have to take 4 segments of string and in 2 you have to take 5 segments.
In 3 IMA = distance moved by the effort/ distance moved by the load
= (15^2 + 3^2)^1/2/3
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