Physics Help Forum What is torque divided by angular velocity?
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 Jun 22nd 2017, 07:50 PM #1 Junior Member   Join Date: Jun 2017 Posts: 1 What is torque divided by angular velocity? What is the best way to simplify torque as a proportion of angular velocity? Is that even a thing? Is there something close?
 Jun 22nd 2017, 08:16 PM #2 Senior Member   Join Date: Apr 2017 Posts: 474 So... torque is measured in Newton meters .... We have an arm fixed at one end ,but free to rotate about that anchor point. We can apply a torque of 1Nm , which will want to make the arm rotate about the anchor point ... this could be a force of 1N , 1 m from the pivot ...or 2 N half a meter from pivot , of 4N a quarter meter from pivot ...etc .. all exert a torque of 1Nm torque = f x (distance of force from anchor pt.) Whether this arm has angular velocity or not is irrelevant . It's very similar to linear force acting on a mass , it doesn't matter if the mass already has a velocity , the aplied force will want to change this already present velocity.
Jun 23rd 2017, 11:43 AM   #3
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 Originally Posted by goodseltzer What is the best way to simplify torque as a proportion of angular velocity? Is that even a thing? Is there something close?
Is there a problem statement associated with this query? May help if you posted from where you're getting this idea.

 Jun 29th 2017, 05:11 AM #4 Junior Member   Join Date: Apr 2016 Posts: 14 I read youre question wrong first. Since it seems that you are asking of the ratio of torque and angular velocity I did not come up with a simple construct. But if you want a relation you can find it in the attachment. Last edited by Torgny; Jun 29th 2017 at 05:31 AM. Reason: typo
 Jun 29th 2017, 12:25 PM #5 Senior Member     Join Date: Jun 2016 Location: England Posts: 839 applying a torque will generate an angular acceleration so a change of angular velocity with respect to time. the rate of change of angular velocity will depend of course on the size or the torque, but also on the rotational inertia of the object being acted upon: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moment_of_inertia Note that there is a close match to the "standard" Force = Mass x Acceleration. __________________ ~\o/~
 Jul 3rd 2017, 11:17 AM #6 Physics Team     Join Date: Jun 2010 Location: Morristown, NJ USA Posts: 2,336 The correlation of torque and angular velocity is: $\displaystyle \vec \tau = I \frac {d\vec {\omega}} {dt}$ where $\displaystyle \vec {\tau}$ is torque, $\displaystyle \vec {\omega}$ is angular velocity, and I is moment of inertia. For cases of constant torque you could integrate this to get: $\displaystyle \tau \Delta t = I \Delta\omega$ If the initial angular velocity is 0, then this becomes: $\displaystyle \tau \Delta t = I \omega$ Rearrange to get: $\displaystyle \frac {\tau}{\omega} = \frac I {\Delta t }$ So, for this simple case torque divided by angular momentum = moment of inertia divided by time. Not a very useful equation, but I hope it helps!

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