Originally Posted by incrediblyfrustrated Hi, I'm trying to understand how a moving conductor traveling with a constant velocity in a uniform magnetic field can produce an emf of Blv... 
I believe that this is where you ran into a problem. There is a slight mistake in the terminology you used in describing your scenario. That caused a bit of a problem in correctly stating your question.
You see, the term "emf" means
electromotive force which is defined as follows:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromotive_force Electromotive force, also called emf (denoted and measured in volts) is the voltage developed by any source of electrical energy such as a battery or dynamo. It is generally defined as the electrical potential for a source in a circuit. A device that supplies electrical energy is called a seat of electromotive force or emf. Emfs convert chemical, mechanical, and other forms of energy into electrical energy.The product of such a device is also know as emf.

While this is the term you used the concept you described was more along the lines of a motional EMF. You see, a motional EMF is a closed line integral around a closed circuit. In your diagram there is no closed circuit. However there will be a difference in potential between the two ends and this kind of difference in potential you can measure with a volt meter.
Note: You might wonder what kind of difference in potential you can't measure with a volt meter. Consider a spherically charged object at
r = (0, 0, 0). There will be an electric field around this object and there will be a difference in potential between two points at different radii. If you placed a voltmeter between two such points it will read zero. There's a subtle difference between these two scenarios which you have to be careful about. Here's why: in the example you gave there will be no flow of current in the wire, all that exists is a difference in potential across the conductors ends and that's it. If instead you placed a conductor shaped like a square loop whose sides are parallel to the xyaxes in a magnetic field in the zdirection where the loop is moving in the +x direction (or any direction which keeps it in the xyplane) then there will still be no current in the conductor. However if the field exists only in the +x side of the yaxes and the loop is in motion such that the magnetic field is only in part of the loop then the flux will be changing and there will be a nonzero emf in the wire and there will now be a current.
If you worked this out using the closed integral that defines the emf in he circuit then this will make a lot more sense. I wish I could easily draw and attach a diagram.