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Old May 6th 2018, 02:30 PM   #1
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The definition of Luminous

The emission of light--------so the question still exist how can Maxwell's equations that are derived using Faraday's induction effect that is not luminous (not emitting light) be used to represent the structure of light.
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Old May 6th 2018, 03:44 PM   #2
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Originally Posted by lovebunny View Post
The emission of light--------so the question still exist how can Maxwell's equations that are derived using Faraday's induction effect that is not luminous (not emitting light) be used to represent the structure of light.
I'll let this one continue...for now.

Again, Maxwell's equations are not derived from Faraday's induction equation. It is only one equation out of four.

How could any of the Maxwell equations individually predict a light wave? The derivation, if I'm recalling it correctly, requires two of them to derive the wave equation.

You should look this one over again.

-Dan
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Old May 6th 2018, 05:08 PM   #3
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Again, Maxwell's equations are not derived from Faraday's induction equation.

"GENERAL EQUATIONS OF THE ELECTROMAGNETIC FIELD." (Maxwell, Part III).

"the total electromagnetic momentum of the circuit, or the number of lines of magnetic force which pass through it, the variations of which measure the total electromotive force in the circuit. This electromagnetic momentum is the same thing to which Professor Faraday has applied the name of the Electrotonic State. If the circuit be the boundary of the elementary area dydz." (Maxwell, Part III).



"Equations of Magnetic Force.



uα = dH/dy - dG/dz............................................2



uβ = dF/dz - dH/dx.............................................3



uλ = dG/dx - dF/dy.............................................4



Equations of Currents...



dλ/dy - dβ/dz = 4πp'........................................... .5



dα/dz - dλ/dx = 4πq'........................................... .6



dβ/dx - dα/dy = 4πr'........................................... .7



We may call these the Equations of Currents." (Maxwell, Part III).



Does the following prove that Maxwell's equations are in fact derived using Faraday's induction effect? Or maybe perhaps I am wrong?
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